1.
Jesus' Salvation-Historical Identity
1. Jesus' Salvation-Historical Identity Most of the matieral in the synoptic gospels focuses on Jesus' teaching about the Kingdom of God and other topics; in John when he speaks about himself, it is to describe his role a mediator of eschatological salvation. But occasionally in the gospels Jesus does refer to himself and is referred to by certain salvation-historical designations. People naturally wonder about his identity, just as they did with John the Baptist. J. Becker, Jesus of Nazareth, 1998 (197-217); M. Casey, Son of Man: The Interpretation and Influence of Daniel 7, 1979; H. Conzelmann, "Gegenwart und Zukunft in der synoptischen Tradition," ZThK 54 (1957) 277-96; O. Cullman, The Christology of the New Testament, 1959; R. Fuller, The Foundations of New Testament Christology, 1965; A.J.B. Higgins, Jesus and the Son of Man, 1964; S. Kim, "The Son of Man" as the Son of God, 1983; B. Lindars, Jesus Son of Man, 1983; W. Manson, Jesus, the Messiah, 1943; W. Marxen, Anfangsprobleme der Christologie, 1960; J. C. O'Neill, "The Silence of Jesus," NTS 15 (1969) 153-67; E. Schweizer, "Der Menschensohn (Zur eschatologischen Erwartung Jesu)" ZNW 50 (1959) 185-209; E. Sjöberg, Der verborgene Menschensohn in den Evangelien, 1955; H. E. Tödt, The Son of Man in the Synoptic Tradition, 1965; G. Vermes, Jesus the Jew, 1973; P. Vielhauer, "Gottesreich und Menschensohn in der Verkündigung Jesu" in FS. für Günther Dehn, 1957. 1.2. Jesus as the Christ (Davidic Messiah) and Son of David 1.2.1. Christ (Davidic Messiah) A. Old Testament and Second-Temple Texts As already indicated, the Hebrew prophets foretell the appearance of an eschatological Davidic king. This expectation is carried over into the second-Temple period (see Jesus' Birth). (There are also references to a priestly Messiah.) From Josephus' writings, it is clear that there were many Jews who desired political independence from Roman hegemony (and all who represented Roman interests in Palestine). This desire lay behind several aborted attempts to gain political independence through military action; the striving for independence culminated in the war from 66-73. Some of the leaders of these attempts at gaining political independence probably had messianic self-understandings and aspirations. (Josephus refrains from identifying any of these men explicitly as messianic aspirants, probably because of his political goal of presenting the Jews as a peaceful and easily governable people; to admit that the Jewish religion contained the idea of a Messiah, a king who would overthrow gentile rule, would undermine the achievement of this purpose.) At the time of Herod's siege of Jerusalem in 37 BCE, many Jews expected divine deliverance from Herod and his Roman patrons; it is probable that there was a messianic element to this hope of divine deliverance (Ant. 14. 470-71; War 1. 347-48). In other words, it is possible that those who resisted Herod expected the appearance of a Davidic Messiah as the concrete manifestation of God's deliverance. (The author of Ps. Sol. 17 certainly hoped for the coming of the ideal Davidic king after the fall of the Hasmonean dynasty to Pompey.) Josephus also describes how in 6 CE a certain Judas the Galilean from Gamala rose to prominence, in league with Zaddok the Pharisee (War 2. 118, 433; 7. 253; Ant. 18. 4-10, 23-25, 20. 102). Judas led a revolt against Rome, which was crushed; this revolt had messianic overtones, as did the later Zealot movement of which Judas was said to have been the founder (Some of his descendants are named as Zealots who played important roles in the war against Rome). Judas and later the Zealots believed that God would come to the aid of the revolutionaries. Perhaps, Judas considered himself as the means of God's deliverance and, therefore, as de facto, the Messiah. After Judas, a man named Theudas appeared, whom Josephus calls an impostor (goês); he seems to mean that Theudas was a messianic impostor, which is suggested by the fact that he promised the people that he was a prophet and would part the Jordan and lead the people through it (Ant. 20. 97-98). (It is likely that he was attempting to imitate Joshua's conquest of Caanan, but the “conquest” that he had in mind to carry out was probably eschatological deliverance.) The procurator, Cuspius Fadus (44-46), sent out the cavalry and killed Theudas, bringing his head back to Jerusalem; Fadus saw Theudas as a military threat to the public peace, which suggests that he had messianic pretensions. During the reign of Nero, Josephus says that there appeared "impostors and deceivers" who claimed that if the people would follow them into the desert they would perform "miracles and signs." It is clear that such men were messianic pretenders, even though Josephus does not identify them as such. One such impostor and deceiver as a man identified simply as "the Egyptian"; he led a group of 30,000 to the Mount of Olives, where he said that he would command the walls of Jerusalem to fall down, whereupon they would enter the city and conquered the Roman garrison stationed there (War 2. 261-63; Ant. 20. 167-72) (The resemblance between this prediction and the fall of the walls of Jericho under the leadership of Joshua was surely not lost on the people.) Josephus explains that "the Egyptian" intended to become an absolute ruler (tyrannos). Clearly, "the Egyptian" had messianic aspirations. The whole affair ended tragically when the Felix, the Roman procurator, met this man and his followers with a military force. (Paul was mistaken for "the Egyptian" in Acts 21:38.) Josephus explains that a cause of the Jewish war against Rome was the belief in the imminent appearance of the Messiah: "But now, what did the most to incite them in undertaking this war, was an ambiguous oracle that was also found in their sacred writings, how, at that time, one from their country should become ruler of the world. The Jews took this prediction to belong to themselves in particular, and many of the wise men were thereby deceived in their interpretation of it" (War 6.312-13). This messianic expectation explains the fanaticism of the participants and even why they would even consider taking on the Romans in the first place. It is probable that some of the leaders of this rebellion had messianic aspirations. a. Jesus' Reluctance to Be Known as the Christ (Davidic Messiah) Although it is the assumption of the gospel writers that Jesus is the Christ (i.e. Davidic Messiah), Jesus does not claim the title for himself, and is reticent to accept the title from others. It seems that Jesus did not want to be understood as Messiah of the popular imagination, a military leader, like Judas, Theudas and the Egyptian.That is, he does not see himself as the Davidic Messiah described in Psalms of Solomon 17, 18. He tends to keep his own messianic self-consciousness in the background, preferring rather to focus his public proclamation focused on the Kingdom of God.
i. Luke 4:41 (see Mark 1:34)
Jesus would not let the demons speak when he cast them out because, according to Luke 4:41, they knew that he was the Christ; presumably Jesus did not want this information disclosed to the general public. ii. Mark 1:23-25 (= Luke 4:33-35)
Jesus does not allow the demon in the man to speak any further after the demon has identified him as "the Holy One of God," no doubt a messianic title. iii. Mark 14:61-63 (= Matt 26:63-64) (see Luke 22:67-70)
During his interrogation by the Sanhedrin, Jesus only reluctantly agrees that he believes that he is the Christ. Actually in this exchange between Jesus and the High Priest, three titles are mentioned: Christ, son of God and son of man. It is clear that it is the common consensus that the titles "Christ" (or Messiah) and "son of God" (or Blessed One) are synonyms, since they are set in apposition to each other. In addition, after Jesus accepts the title of Christ, he says that the High Priest would see the son of man sitting at the right hand of God (in exaltation) and coming on the clouds of heaven, an allusion to Dan 7:20 (see below). iv. Mark 8:29-30 (= Matt 16:19-20 = Luke 9:20-21)
When Peter confesses that Jesus is the Christ, Jesus instructs Peter to tell no one of his realization. Why he wants this to remain confidential is not provided, but presumably Jesus did not want to be identified as the Davidic Messiah of popular expectation. b. Jesus Recognized as the Christ (Davidic Messiah) Some Jews wonder whether Jesus is the Davidic Messiah based on what he does (see Jesus as Miracle Worker), while others suspect that he believes himself to be the Messiah. Matthew says that in prison John the Baptist heard about "the works of the Messiah," and sent some of his disciples to ask Jesus whether he was the one who should come (Matt 11:2) (Luke's introduction to this pericope is different [Luke 7:18].) The meaning seems to be that John heard that Jesus was doing the things that the Messiah was supposed to do (see Eschatological Context of Jesus' Healings). Similarly, because of what Jesus does (exorcising), people wonder whether Jesus is the son of David, a synonym for Messiah (Matt 12:23) (see below for consideration of title "son of David"). At Jesus' trial before the Sanhedrin, the High Priest asks Jesus whether he believes that he is the Messiah (Mark 14:62 = Matt 23:63 = Luke 22:67), which implies that he and the others suspect that Jesus believes that he is, but they do not have any definitive proof. After Jesus' trial it became public knowledge that Jesus considered himself to be the Davidic Messiah—the King of the Jews—so that this was given as the official reason for his execution, as indicated on the titulus written in Hebrew (or Aramaic), Greek and Latin (Mark 15:26 = Matt 27:37; John 19:19-20): "The King of the Jews." In fact, this was the official charge on which Jesus is brought before Pontius Pilate: "We found this man...saying that he himself is the Messiah, a king" (Luke 23:2). Jesus does not disclose directly even to his disciples that he believes that he is the Messiah; rather he elicits this response from Peter, who speaks as the spokesman for the group, and only acquiesces to it (Mark 8:27-30 = Matt 16:13-20 = Luke 9:18-21). In Matthew's version, Jesus says that the knowledge that he is the Messiah was disclosed to Peter by God (Matt 16:17). There are three versions of Peter's confession: "You are the Christ" (Mark 8:29); "You are the Christ, the Son of the living God" (Matt 16:16); "The Christ of God" (Luke 9:20). The differences between the three versions is inconsequential, for Peter confesses that Jesus is Israel's Davidic Messiah. Presumably, before this time, Jesus' disciples were not completely clear about Jesus' identity, as were not people in general (see John 7:40-44; Mark 6:14-16 = Matt 14:1-2 = Luke 9:7-9). As already indicated, Jesus commands his disciples not to disclose his identity to others. In the Gospel of John, Jesus is also reluctant to be known publicly as the Messiah, so that the people are confused about his exact identity (7:26-42; 12:34). Jesus' signs and his teaching convince people that he is extraordinary and could be an eschatological figure, like the Prophet (6:14; 7:40). (Jesus resists an attempt to conscript him as a popular, revolutionary leader by the people [6:15]). At one point, the "Jews" ask Jesus directly whether he is the Messiah; Jesus says that he has already told them, but what he likely means is that he has given them enough clues that they should be able to conclude correctly about his identity (10:24-25). Only to the Samaritan woman in Sychar, does Jesus disclose his identity as the Messiah, but she is not a Jew (4:25-26). At his trial before Pilate also Jesus reluctantly admits that he is a king (18:28-40). People do, nonetheless, come to believe that Jesus is the Messiah by drawing the correct conclusion from the evidence (9:22; 10:24; see 6:69). The disciples are perplexed when Jesus speaks about his departure (death) because they have heard it taught from the Law that the Messiah remains forever (12:34). 3. Royal Entry (Mark 11:1-10 = Matt 21:1-9; Luke 19:28-40; John 12:12-19)
The prophet Zechariah prophesies that the Messiah would ride into Jerusalem not as a great conqueror of the nations, but as a peaceful, non-violent ruler; symbolic of this is the fact that he rides on a colt, not on a war horse or in a chariot: "Rejoice greatly, O Daughter of Zion! Shout, Daughter of Jerusalem! See, your king comes to you, righteous and having salvation, gentle and riding on a donkey, on a colt, the foal of a donkey" (Zech 9:9). Jesus enters Jerusalem from Bethany about a week before the beginning of Passover; he intentionally sets out to fulfill Zech 9:9. Thus, at the end of his ministry, Jesus symbolically declares himself to be the Davidic Messiah, the king of Israel, but the Messiah as defined by Zech 9:9, one who brings a reign of peace to Israel and to the nations. Jesus accepts the appellation of the crowd to be the Messiah or son of David, but only as he has defined the term "king" by his symbolic act. (See R. Stein, Jesus the Messiah, chap. 13; Gundry, Mark, 622-34.) A. Jesus Addressed as "Son of David" Occasionally, Jesus is addressed by the obviously messianic title of "son of David." This suggests that his contemporaries suspect that he is the Davidic Messiah. Jesus is depicted as neither accepting the title nor rejecting the designation. 1. Mark 10:46-49 (= Matt 20:29-31 = Luke 18:35-39)
A blind man (Matt = two blind men), in asking Jesus (loudly) for healing, addresses him as "son of David." The man recognizes Jesus as the Davidic Messiah, who has the ability to heal. 2. Matt 9:27-28
Matthew has another account of Jesus' healing two blind men, who likewise address him as "son of David." 3. Matt 15:22
The Syro-Phoenician woman who asks Jesus to exorcise her daughter addresses Jesus as "Lord, son of David." How she came to know of Jesus' identity is not clear. 4. Matt 21:8-17
When he rode into Jerusalem on the donkey, according to Matt 21:9, the crowds shouted "Hosanna to the son of David." As a result, the chief priests and scribes took offense (20:15). The other accounts do not include this, but it is implied. Even though he is identified as "the prophet Jesus, from Nazareth in Galilee," Jesus is also ident hese two designations are not seen as incompatible, since prophet is probably being used in a general sense of one sent from God. 5. Matt 12:23
In addition, because of Jesus' healing of a demon-possessed man, the crowds began to wonder whether Jesus was the son of David (Matt 12:23), which is to say whether he is the Davidic king endowed with the power of God. B. Jesus' Interpretation of "Son of David" (Mark 12:35-37) (= Matt 22:41-46 = Luke 20:41-44)
Ps 110 is royal psalm and promises to the new king that he will rule absolutely, as if he were sitting at God’s right hand. He is assured of divine assistance in being victorious over his enemies, the rulers of other nations (Ps 110:2b, 5-6). Jesus gives a messianic interpretation Ps 110:1. There is no evidence (yet), that Ps 110:1 was interpreted messianically in second-Temple Judaism, but this could be accidental. (Jesus seems to assume that his hearers would agree with him that the psalm is messianic.) He uses Ps 110:1 to give an important interpretation of the messianic idea of "son of David" (see also Mark 14:62) (The early church also interprets this passage messianically [Acts 2:34-35; see 1 Cor 15:25]). In the psalm, David (by the Holy Spirit) says that Yahweh (the Lord) said to his lord, "Sit at my right hand until I make your enemies a footstool for your feet." Jesus interprets "lord" as the Davidic messiah, which means that David is speaking about how Yahweh has given the Davidic Messiah the right of authority over all the world. Moreover, in Jesus' view, the fact that David calls his son, the Messiah, lord assumes not only the pre-existence of the Messiah but also his superiority to David. So Jesus uses this textual anomaly to pose the question whether the Davidic Messiah should be understood simply as a descendent of David and not more than that.
1.3.1. Old Testament and Second-Temple Texts In order to understand the meaning of the title son of God as used by Jesus and by others, one must examine its Old Testament background and its use in the second-Temple period. The term "son of God" is used in some second-Temple sources as a synonym for Messiah, a practice that originated in the messianic interpretation of Old Testament texts by Jews of the second-Temple period (2 Sam 7:14; Ps 2:7) (see Jesus' Birth). In 2 Sam 7, God promises to relate to David's son, Solomon, as a father relates to his son. It was assumed that God would all the more relate to David's greater son, the eschatological Davidic king, as a father to a son. In Ps 2, upon his installation as king, the "Anointed One" (Messiah) is said to be God's son; on the day that he becomes king God becomes his father (2:7). It was assumed that Ps 2 was a description of the installation of Israel's eschatological king. Thus, because of the messianic interpretation of these two passages, post-biblical Jews sometimes use the term "son of God" as a synonym for the Messiah. A. 4Q174 4QFlorilegium or Midrash on Last Days) This text is what remains of a collection of Old Testament texts considered messianically and eschatologically significant along with some commentary. The author interprets an abbreviated version of 2 Sam 7:11c-14a as messianic, on the assumption that God is referring not to Solomon but to David's greatest "son" or descendent, the eschatological Davidic king.
In his commentary on this passage, the author explicitly identifies the "son" in 2 Sam 7:11c-14a as the "the branch of David." This means that the author has identified David's "son" in 2 Sam 7:14 with the eschatological Davidic king described metaphorically as the "branch of David" in Jer 23:5; 33:15. In 4Q174 1.12b, Amos 9:11 is quoted as referring to the appearance of this Davidic king: "I will raise up the tent of David that has falle[n] (Amos 9:11), who will arise to save Israel." (1.13). He is destined to "save Israel" (lhwšy` 'th yšr'l), by which no doubt is meant a political and military deliverance. Similarly, in 4Q174 1.18-19, Ps 2:1 is quoted and interpreted: "[Why] do the nations [rag]e and the people im[agine] a vain thing? [Kings of the earth] ris[e up] and [and p]rinces conspire together against Yahweh and against [his anointed] (Ps 2:1-2). [In]terpretation of the saying [concerns na]tions and th[ey ] the chosen of Israel in the last days." Although the text is not complete, it is clear that Ps 2:1-2 is being interpreted messianically. The anointed one, against whom the nations rage, is called the "elect of Israel in the last days," meaning the eschatological Davidic king. B. The
same messianic interpretation of Ps 2 seems to underlie 4Q246 (Aramaic
Apocalypse). This
fragmentary Aramaic text probably makes reference to the eschatological
Davidic king and his kingdom, referring to him as "son of God"
(see J. Collins, The Scepter and the Star, chap. 7). In col.
1 line 9 there is a probable reference to this eschatological ruler :
"...great will he be called and he will be designated by his name." C. In 4Q369 (The Prayer of Enosh) occurs the statement: "You have purified him for...in everlasting light and you have established him as a firstborn son...like his as a prince and ruler for all the territory of your land." Most likely, the individual to whom this fragment refers is the Davidic Messiah, since he is established as "prince and ruler for all the territory of your land." If so, then to call him "firstborn son" probably reflects a messianic interpretation of Ps 2:7 D. 1QSa 2:11-12 could be interpreted to mean that God will "beget" his Messiah, reflecting a messianic interpretation of Ps 2:7. If so, then the title "son" (of God) may be applied to the messiah. This conclusion requires that the verb be reconstructed as ywlyd (He [God] begets" rather than ywlyk ("He [God] leads forth") E. In 1 Enoch 105:2, God says, "Until I and my son are united with them forever." God's son in this context appears to be the Messiah. F. In Ps. Sol. 17:23, there is a hint of the influence of Ps 2:9 on the description of the Davidic Messiah: "To smash (ektripsai) the arrogance of sinners like a potter's jar (hôs skeuê kerameôs)." In LXX Ps 2:9, it is said to the anointed king, the one declared to be "son": "You will smash (suntripseis) them [the nations] like a potter's jar (hôs skeuê kerameôs)." (Although it only survives only in Greek translation, Psalms of Solomon was not originally composed in Greek and so would not have been influenced directly by the LXX translation of Ps 2.) This echo of Ps 2:9 in Ps. Sol. 17:23 probably indicates that the author and his readers understood Ps 2 as messianic, and so the Messiah can be called the son of God. G. In the post-New Testament 4 Ezra, the Messiah is called the son, most likely in dependence on a messianic interpretation of Ps 2 (7:28-29; 13:37, 52; 14:9). Jesus sometimes refers to himself as the son of God and is called the son of God by others, including demons. Often the title "son of God" is equivalent to the title of Davidic Messiah, and thus is in continuity with the Old Testament and the second-Temple messianic thinking. It is not surprising that in contexts where son of God is clearly a synonym for Messiah, Jesus is reluctant to have his identity as son of God being disclosed indiscriminately to the general public. (More than once, however, Jesus is declared to be "son [of God]" by the voice from heaven.) But it must be pointed out that, although he does not proclaim himself as the son of God publicly, as he proclaims the Kingdom of God, Jesus, nevertheless, does not eschew disclosing himself as son of God, unlike his reticence to be known as Davidic Messiah. In fact in some contexts, he will readily discourses about his identity as son of God. This is because there is an important development that takes place in Jesus' use of the term son of God, which is reflected in the later use of the term by the early church. For Jesus, the term son of God expresses his unique relationship to the God the Father, one not shared with any other being; this unique relationship pre-exists his appearance in human history as the Messiah, and entitles him to certain privileges. Some interpret Jesus' claim to sonship as a claim to equality with God. When he does publicly identify himself as son of God, Jesus stresses the relational dimensions of its meaning, not its messianic; no doubt his hearers would strongly suspect that, by calling himself son of God, Jesus also means to identify himself as the Messiah. In some places Jesus is referred to as the son of God, while in others he refers to himself as such. In those contexts, where son of God means primarily Messiah, as indicated, Jesus is reluctant to accept the title or wary about its further disclosure. 1. References to Jesus as Son of God There are several references to Jesus as son of God; probably, in each instance son of God is synonymous with Davidic Messiah. a. Mark 1:11 = Matt 3:17 = Luke 3:22: The heavenly voice (God) at Jesus' baptism refers to Jesus as "my son" (see Accounts of Jesus' Baptism). b. Matt 4:3 = Luke 4:3: Satan tempts Jesus on the assumption that he is the son of God. c. Mark 3:11; Luke 4:41 (see Mark 1:34): The demons call Jesus the son of God; Jesus would not let them disclose his identity as the son of God to the general public. d. Mark 9:7 = Matt 17:5 = Luke 9:35: At the transfiguration the heavenly voice again calls Jesus the son (of God). e. Matt 16:16: Peter confesses Jesus is the Christ, the son of living God. f. Matt 14:32: The disciples confess Jesus as the son of God after Jesus walks on the water. 2. Jesus' References to Himself as Son of God a. Matt 11:25-27 = Luke 10:21-22
Jesus refers to himself as the son (of God); what he says implies that, by virtue of being the son, he has a unique relationship to God. This unique relationship means that to him alone have all things been delivered, meaning that to the son has been given knowledge and authority withheld from others. Only the son knows the Father and the Father knows the son's true identity, implying that the Jesus as the son is more than he appears to be. The son may reveal the Father to others of his choosing. In this case, Jesus' use of the phrase "son" is more than a synonym for the Davidic Messiah. b. Mark 13:32 (= Matt 24:36)
Jesus says that no one knows the last days or hours, not the angels, not even the son; this reference to himself as the son implies that he has a special relationship with the Father, but even this relationship does not allow him access to knowledge of the time of the end. In the Gospel of John, Jesus refers to himself as the son (of God) and is referred to as the son. In addition, he frequently refers to the Father in such a way as to imply a unique relationship with him (as son). The stress is not on Jesus' identity as the Davidic Messiah, for which the term "son of God" can function as a synonym, but on the relational meaning of the term. But some uses of "son of God" in John are intended merely as synonyms for the Davidic Messiah. By calling himself "son," Jesus is claiming a unique relationship to God (the Father). In such contexts, Jesus speaks to a restricted audience, not to the general public indiscriminately. a. John 1:49
Nathanael confesses that Jesus is the son of God, and Jesus accepts it. Nathanael probably intends "son of God" to be a designation for the Davidic Messiah, since it is in apposition to "King of Israel." b. John 5:16-30, 36-45
Jesus discourses about himself as the son and his relation to the Father: 1. The son works as the Father works (5:17); 2. But the son only does what his sees his Father do (5:19); 3. The Father loves the son and shows him all that he does (5:20); 4. The son gives life to whom he will (5:21); 5. The Father has entrusted all judgment to the son (5:22); 6. The dead will hear the voice of the son and live; 7. As the Father has life in himself so He has granted the son to have life in Himself; 8. The son does the work that the Father has given him to do, and this testifies that the Father has sent him (5:36). (The "Jews" tried to kill Jesus because he was calling God his Father, which they interpreted as his making himself equal with God [5:18].) c. John 6:46
Jesus says that no one has seen the Father, by which he means God, except the one who is from the Father, referring to himself. Jesus is claiming that he alone has seen or knows God, because he is from God. Implicitly, by calling God the Father, he is calling himself the son of God. d. John 6:57
Jesus says that just as the living Father has sent him and he lives because of the Father, so the one who feeds on him will live because of him. By calling God the Father, Jesus implies his identity as the son. e. John 8:18-19
Jesus says that if he did judge his decisions would be correct because he stands with his Father who has sent him. He adds, "If you knew me you would know my Father also." By calling God his Father, Jesus implies that he is the son of God. f. John 8:36
Jesus says that if the son—referring to himself—sets you free, then you will be free indeed. By son he means "son of God," implying a unique relationship to God the Father. The freedom of which he speaks is freedom from sin and its consequences. g. John 10:14-15
Jesus claims that the Father knows him and he knows the Father in a unique way. Calling God "the Father" implies Jesus self-identity as the son. h. John 10:30
Jesus says he and the Father are one. The oneness consists both in unity of purpose and a more profound unity of being. Jesus use of the term "my Father" implies his view of himself as "son of God." i. John 10:31-38
Jesus is interpreted by his enemies as making himself out to be God by calling himself the son (of God); he defends his assertion with an argument from minor to major: If God calls "gods" to whom the word of God came (Ps 82:6), how much more should Jesus be called God's son, and not be accused of blasphemy. Jesus is not asserting that everyone has the right to call himself "son" (of God) in the same sense that he does; rather he is claiming a unique relationship to God, which he expresses by means of "son." No one should be able to deny this. He explains obliquely that the relationship he as the son has with God the Father is that of a mutual indwelling: the Father is in me, and I in the Father. This mode of being related to God is unique to Jesus. Proof of his unique relationship to God the Father is his ability to do only what God could do, his miracles ("works"). j. John 11:27
Jesus accepts the designations Christ and son of God from Martha. In this case, these seem to be synonymous, so that son of God implies nothing about Jesus' unique relationship to God. k. John 14:7, 9b
Jesus identifies "seeing" him in the sense of having experiential knowledge of him is the same as "seeing" his Father, by which he means knowing God. This is not true of anyone else, and so implies Jesus' sense of being uniquely related to God the Father. Calling God "my Father" implies Jesus' sense of unique sonship or otherwise he would have said "our Father." l. John 14:10-11
Jesus says that he is in the Father and the Father is in him and that it is the Father who is in him who is doing his work (see 10:38). To describe his relationship to God the Father as this mutual indwelling implies a unique relationship. Proof that this is true is the fact that Jesus alone can do the works of God, by which he means miracles beyond the ability of human beings. Jesus' reference to God as "the Father" impies his sense of sonship. m. John 15:23
Jesus says that the one who hates him hates his Father also. The implication is an identity between him and God the Father, not shared by anyone else. Jesus' use of the phrase "my Father" implies a unique sonship: Jesus as son of God.. 2. Jesus' Pre-Existence (John 8:56-58)
Jesus says, "Before Abraham was I am," which is not only a claim to pre-existence but a claim to equality and even identity with God, since "I am" is the name by which God revealed himself to Moses (Exod 3:14).
Unlike "Christ" and "son of God," the title "the son of man" is absent from the theology of the early church. Even though Jesus refers to himself most frequently in the gospels as "the son of man," sometimes in indisputable dependence on Dan 7:13, Paul, for example, never uses the term in his description of Jesus. In fact, outside of the gospels, the term occurs only in Acts 7:56 and Rev 1:13; 14:14, both of which are clear allusions to Dan 7:13 ("son of man" also occurs in Heb 2:6 as part of a quotation from Ps 8:5). There has been much debate over the meaning of this term, since the term (the) son of man (bar 'enash or bar 'enosh and bar nash or bar nasha') in Aramaic can be an idiomatic means of self-reference and also seems to be a pre-Christian messianic title. It seems that Jesus uses the term "the son of man" both idiomatically as a self-reference and titularly as a messianic title. He does this deliberately to conceal partially his self-conscious as the future Danielic son of man. 1.4.1. Relgious Historical Background A. Son of Man as Eschatological Figure in Second-Temple Judaism The Aramaic term "son of man" (bar 'enash) appears in Dan 7:13-14, where the eschatological kingdom is symbolized as the coming of "one like a son a man," in contradistinction to the four beasts representing four worldly kingdoms. This "one like a son of man" comes with the clouds of heaven; he approaches the ancient of days and is given an everlasting kingdom. To come on the clouds of heaven symbolizes the heavenly or divine origin of the kingdom. In the second-Temple text known as Similitudes of Enoch (1 Enoch 37-71) there are references to the / that "son of man," in which the term is a title denoting a pre-existent being from heaven who descends to earth to sit upon the throne of judgment, to destroy the wicked of the earth, to deliver the righteous, and to reign in a kingdom of glory (1 Enoch 46:2-4; 48:2; 62:5-7, 13-14; 69:27-29). The same figure is also called "the Elect One" (49.2-4; 51.5a, 2-3; 61.8-9; 62.1), "the Righteous and Elect One" (53.6), "the Lord's Anointed" (48.10; 52.4) and even "the Light of the Gentiles" (48.4). Clearly, son of man is a title for the Messiah, but as a Messiah he exceeds his biblical parameters as a descendent of David. What apparently happened is that the "one like a son of man," as a symbol of the nation Israel destined to receive an eschatological kingdom, was individualized and identified with the Davidic Messiah, who would rule in that eschatological kingdom. In addition, although the actual phrase "son of man" does not occur there, 4 Ezra 13 also understands the one like a son of man in Dan 7 as an eschatological deliverer and judge; he is, in other words, a messianic figure. Thus, it is probable that at the time of Jesus, (the) son of man functioned as a messianic title, denoting a pre-existent eschatological deliverer and judge; such a conception has its origins in a messianic and individualizing interpretation of "one like a son of man" in Dan 7:13-14.
B. "Son of Man" as Idiom of Self-Reference The phrase "son of man" (bar 'enash or bar 'enosh) occurs as an idiom in Syrian and Aramaic texts from the pre-Christian period with either a generic sense (a human being) (1QapGen 21.13; 11QtgJob 9.9; 26.3) or with an indefinite sense (someone) (Sefire III.16) (Fitzmyer, Luke, 1.208-209; Collins, Daniel, 304-10). Furthermore, G. Vermes seeks to provide evidence from post-Christian talmudic writings that the phrase "son of man" (bar nash or bar nasha) can be used as a circumlocution for "I" or "me" ("The Use of bar nash / bar nasha' in Jewish Aramaic"; "Jesus the son of man" in Jesus the Jew). The purpose of using the term "son of man" in this manner is to avoid the directness of using the first person pronoun for the sake of modesty or delicacy. M. Casey later modifies Vermes' position conceding that in examples cited by Vermes the term "son of man" in each of its uses denotes a class of human beings, but a class that includes the speaker, so that the term is still a form of self-designation (Son of Man). (Lindars likewise agrees with Vermes that "son of man" is used as a means of self-reference, but criticizes him for not recognizing that the phrase is generic; critical of Casey also, he argues that the "idiomatic use of the generic article" (24)—"the son of man" [bar (e)nasha'] [rather than the anarthrous "son of man" (bar (e)nash)]—by which the speaker specifies a group of people with whom he identifies, stands behind Jesus' use of the term "son of man" [Jesus Son of Man, 17-28].) Vermes' examples are admittedly late and for that reason are sometimes dismissed as irrelevant for a determination of the meaning of "son of man" for the time of Jesus (see Fitzmyer, "The NT Title 'Son of Man' Philologically Considered" in A Wandering Aramean, 143-60). Nevertheless, Vermes reasons that some of the later use of the term (the) son of man may reach back to an earlier period ("The Present State of the 'Son of Man' Debate," JJS 29 (1978) 123-34). Since, in the gospels, Jesus does indeed use the phrase "the son of man" as a simple self-designation, Vermes' position is probably correct. Whether Jesus only intended the term "son of man" as a circumlocution is, however, debatable (see Caragounis, The Son of Man, 27-28).
A. Idiomatic Use of "Son of Man" 1. That the term "the son of man" is an idiomatic for self-reference is evidenced by the fact that in one version of a synoptic tradition, one finds "I" or "me," whereas in its parallel, the idiom "son of man" occurs. In other words, in some of the gospel traditions translated into Greek, "I" or "me" and "son of man" are interchangeable; this probably reflects the Aramaic substratum of the gospel tradition, in which "(the) son of man" can be an idiomatic self-reference. a. Mark 8:27 = Matt 16:13: It is clear that in this case "son of man" (even in Greek) is nothing more than an idiom of self-reference. On the assumption that Matthew's version derives from Mark, then Matthew change the "I" to "son of man," perhaps knowing that this was Jesus' actual Aramaic usage. b. Luke 6:22 = Matt 5:11: Jesus pronounces people "blessed" because of their allegiance to him (He means that they will be blessed in the eschatological future). In Luke's version Jesus says "because of the son of man"; Matthew's version reads "because of me." Probably there were two variations of the same tradition in circulation, one which translated the Aramaic Vorlage literally as "son of man," whereas the other version rendered it less literally—but more comprehensibly to a Greek readership—as "me." c. Luke 12:8 = Matt 10:32: Jesus ties a person's status before God at final judgment to that person's response to him and his proclamation. It seems that there are two different versions of this saying with some slight variations in expression, reflecting probably two independent translations from the Aramaic. It is likely that in the original Aramaic version Jesus uses "son of man" (bar 'enash or bar nasha) as an idiom of self-reference, which in one translation into Greek was rendered literally as "the son of man" (ho huios tou anthropou) and in the other as "I." Thus in Luke's version, Jesus says that "the son of man" will confess before the Father, whereas the Matthean text reads "I will confess." 2. Since the phrase "(the) son of man" can be an idiomatic self-reference (in Aramaic and then later in Greek translation), it is not surprising to discover some uses of the phrase in the gospel tradition in which it means nothing more than "I," with no obvious or necessary messianic implications. a. Luke 9:58 = Matt 8:20: In response to the pledge of a man to follow him wherever he goes, Jesus warns the man that this may entail homelessness and a certain amount of discomfort. He expresses this poetically by saying, "Foxes have holes and birds of the air have nests, but the son of man has no place to lay his head." By the term "son of man," it seems that Jesus means nothing more than "I" or someone in my situation. b. Luke 7:31-35 = Matt 11:16-19: Jesus contrasts his generation's response to John and himself. John was said to be demonized because of his ascetic lifestyle, whereas the non-ascetic Jesus is accused of being "a glutton and a drunkard." In this tradition, Jesus refers to himself as "son of man," which seems to mean nothing more than "I." c. Luke 12:10 = Matt 12:32; see Mark 3:28-29: Although the meaning of this saying is disputed, it seems that Jesus makes a distinction between speaking against him personally and repudiating his mission, i.e., denying that he is empowered by Holy Spirit. An insult against Jesus is not necessarily a rejection of his mission, but to judge that Jesus is empowered otherwise than by the Holy Spirit (by Satan or an evil spirit) is to commit a sin that cannot be pardoned, since one has rejected the means by which eschatological forgiveness comes to Israel. In this context, Jesus uses the phrase "the son of man" with the meaning of "I" or possibly with the more inclusive meaning of "I and any other human being." B. Jesus' Use of Son as Man as Having Messianic Self-Reference There are some instances where Jesus refers to himself as (the) son of man (bar 'enash or bar 'enash), but means more than "I" or someone in my situation. In such cases, he appears to be identifying himself with the exalted, messianic figure known as (the) son of man, especially in regard to his future role as judge, when he will appear at the end of the age (Some of these passages have already been examined.) Jesus' sayings in which he is identified as the future son of man are found in a rejection context and are usually directed to his disciples or to his opponents. In some of these saying the allusion to Dan 7:13 is undeniable. In addition, Jesus' depiction of himself as the son of man resembles that found in the Similitudes of Enoch, insofar as Jesus' self-designation as such implies his role eschatological judge; this seems to indicate that there was a son of man christology antedating Jesus which he adopted to explain his future role as eschatological judge. 1. Mark 8:38
Jesus explains to would-be disciples that following him will be difficult because his generation has rejected him and his proclamation. But the one who is ashamed of Jesus now will be condemned when Jesus as the son of man will return to judge (Mark "with his holy angels; see Dan 7:10 and 1 En 61:10 for references to angels). This saying assumes a period of time to elapse between Jesus' departure as rejected and his return in his capacity as son of man. This saying has been taken to imply that Jesus distinguishes between himself and the son man, the latter being an apocalyptic figure who will vindicate him and those who heeded his words (Higgins, Jesus and the Son of Man, 57-60; Tödt, The Son of Man in the Synoptic Tradition, 40-47) The apparent distinction between Jesus and the son of man, however, reflects Jesus' distinct salvation-historical roles corresponding to his two appearances. 2. Mark 13:26-27 (= Matt 24:30-31 = Luke 21:27)
The reference to the coming of the son of man "coming in clouds" (Mark 13:26), "coming on the clouds of the sky" (Matt 24:30) or "coming in a cloud" (Luke 21:27) are unmistakable allusions to the Danielic son of man (Dan 7:13). Jesus is identifying himself with the eschatological figure of the son of man that developed from the representative use of the phrase found in Dan 7:13. Jesus' appearance as the son of man will occur at the end this age, the time of final deliverance and judgment. He is doing so probably under the influence of a son of man christology as reflected in the Similitudes of Enoch. 3. Mark 14:61-62 (= Matt 26:63-64 = Luke 22:68-69)
At his trial, Jesus reluctantly agrees that he considers himself to be the Davidic Messiah, but immediately he qualifies his confession by saying that his Messiahship consists in his future exaltation as the son of man and his return. In a sense he is not yet the Messiah. Jesus is clearly alluding to the figure in Dan 7:13, which he and others in his day have interpreted as a messianic figure who will appear at the end. Jesus' statement about "sitting at the right hand of power" is an allusion to the messianic interpretation of Ps 110:1, which he is interpreting intertextually with Dan 7:13, in a pesher manner. 4. Matt 19.28
Jesus says that at the paliggenesia (culmination of the Kingdom of God) the son of man will sit upon his throne in glory (see Twelve Disciples). The paliggenesia denotes the culmination of the Kingdom of God, which includes the restoration of the twelve tribes to the land. The use of "son of man" is self-referential, so that Jesus is speaking about his future role at the time of the culmination of the Kingdom of God. But the use of the term is also intertextually allusive of Dan. 7.9-27; Jesus is implicitly identifying his future self as Daniel’s ‘one like the son of man’: ‘He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. He was given authority, glory and sovereign power’ (Dan. 7.13-14). 5. Luke 17:22-24, 26-35; 12:39-40 = Matt 24:27, 37-39, 42-44
Jesus refers to the "days of the son of man" or "the coming of the son of man" by which he means the time of the end when he will return. His own return will bring disobedient human history to a close. He compares the suddenness of his coming as son of man to the appearance of lightning. In fact, the days of Noah offer a parallel to the days of the son of man: just as in Noah's time, so in the days of the son of man judgment will come upon the world suddenly and unexpectedly. This is why the disciples are exhorted to be watchful. 6. For other references to Jesus as eschatological son of man, see Luke 18:8, 21:36; Matt 13:41; 16:28; 19:28; 25:31)
C. Unclear Uses of the Term "Son of Man" There is a class of son of man saying in which it is not clear whether Jesus means simply "I" or the messianic figure of the son of man. No doubt, his hearers would have been similarly confused. 1. Mark 2:10 = Matt 9:6 = Luke 5:24: It is not clear whether Jesus is saying "I have authority to forgive sins" or "I as the Messiah have authority to forgive sins." His hearers would probably be equally undecided as to Jesus' meaning. 2. Mark 2:28 = Matt 12:8 = Luke 6:5: Is Jesus saying that he as a human being has authority over the Sabbath, in which case all human beings would have an equal share of that authority, or is he saying that he as the Messiah has such authority? It is intentionally ambiguous. 3. Luke 19:10 (see Matt 18:11): When he responds to the criticism that he associates with sinners by saying, "The son of man came to seek and save what was lost," Jesus could be interpreted as making a claim to messiahship, to being the son of man, or as simply stating his understanding of his mission, so that "the son of man" is equivalent to "I." 4. Luke 22:48: Jesus asks Judas whether he intends to betray "the son of man" with a kiss, a gesture of friendship. Was Jesus asking whether he was betraying the Messiah or did he intend "son of man" as merely a self-reference? In the Gospel of John, Jesus sometimes refers to himself as son of man. He affirms that the son of man pre-exists, and is sent by the Father into the world. In John 3:13, he says, "No one has ascended into heaven, but he who descended from heaven, the son of man." In this passage, Jesus says about himself that his origin is from heaven, by which he means from God; this presupposes his pre-existence. Likewise in John 6:62, Jesus says, "What then if you see the son of man ascending to where he was before." To ascend is to return to God from whom he was sent. Jesus also says that he as the son of man has been given the authority to give eternal life: "Do not work for the food that perishes, but for the food which endures to eternal life, which the son of man will give to you, for on him the Father, God, has set his seal (6:27). Thus, Jesus' understanding of the son of man in the Gospel of John is similar to that found in Similitudes of Enoch. (Jesus also speaks about the necessity of the death of the son of man, which has already been considered [John 3:14; 8:28; 12:23, 34; 13:31].) In dialogue with the man healed at the Pool of Siloam, Jesus asks him whether he believes in the son of man (9:35). From the context, he means more than "me" by the phrase "son of man," since the man responds by saying, "Who is he, Lord, that I may believe in him?" Rather, Jesus understands it as a title, which he claims for himself (9:37). It is probable that Jesus stategically chose to refer to himself as "son of man." Because of the ambiguity of meaning of the term "son of man," Jesus, in using this term, could be interpreted as meaning "I or someone in my situation," "the eschatological figure of the son of man," or "I, as the eschatological figure of the son of man." His frequent and public use of this ambiguous term is consistent with his reticence to disclose his identity too readily. Yet the term is equally useful to disclose his self-understanding as the one who will come in the future to bring judgment, since there was a ready-to-hand son of man christology prevalent in his day. In some cases, however, his hearers could be not certain whether or not in his use of the phrase "son of man" Jesus intended to identify himself with the son of man as future eschatological judge; rather they may have imagined that Jesus was speaking of an eschatological figure other than himself. It seems that Jesus distances himself from the title son of man because he has yet to assume this role as eschatological judge in the future; in a sense he is not yet that son of man. It should be stressed also that Jesus' identification as son of man implies his pre-existence before his appearance in human history.
Jesus did consider himself
to be the Davidic Messiah or the son of God, but he was reluctant to let
this be known too widely. When he spoke of himself as the son of God,
he meant more than Davidic Messiah: he was usually referring to the unique
relationship that he had with the Father. Jesus only identified himself
publicly by the ambiguous term "son of man." The reason for Jesus' partial
concealment of his identity is probably twofold. First, there was
the danger of people assuming wrongly that his main purpose was to lead
a popular rebellion against the Romans and their Jewish collaborators. Second,
Jesus aimed to present only enough data to cause people to inquire further;
he wanted to prevent the apathetic, the unsympathetic and the hostile
from knowing fully about his identity and purposes. Further inquiry was
a manifestation of faith, which had its origin in the revelatory work
of God (see Matt 16:17). As Ben Meyer expressed it, "Jesus' whole public
performance was meant to be deciphered. His public life was accordingly
a lived parable. It was designed to supply Israel with data apt to generate
the conclusion: This is indeed "the coming one!" ("Master Builder and
Copestone of the Portal: Images of the Mission of Jesus," Toronto
Journal of Theology 9 (1993): 187-209, esp. 196.) Closely related to Jesus' teaching about the Kingdom of God are his sayings about discipleship. The choice to follow Jesus is a condition of entrance into the Kingdom of God; one cannot enter the Kingdom of God either preliminarily without being willing to become Jesus' follower or, finally, at time of the full eschatological reversal, without having been one. Jesus sees a person's relation to himself as determinate of that person's standing with God. 2.1. Mark 10:28-31 = Matt 19:27-30 = Luke 18:29-30 Jesus says that reward will be given to those who have followed him and sacrificed for him. This will take place "in this age" when his followers will receive all the good things that they have denied in the present. Jesus seems to mean that his followers will be rewarded when the Kingdom of God comes to its full realization, which is still part of "this age." Jesus also says that those who have followed him will receive "eternal life" "in the age to come" at which time there will be a reversal of statuses: "The last will be first and the first will be last." In the context, he is probably referring to the period after the full realization of the Kingdom of God. Exactly how this "eternal life" will differ from receiving reward in the future Kingdom is not explained. 2.2. Luke 9:59-60 = Matt 8:21-22 Jesus demands that those who follow him do so immediately and unconditionally: "Let the dead bury their own dead" (Luke: "You depart and preach the Kingdom of God"). To follow Jesus is to accept his message of the Kingdom of God and to repent. As in most cultures, a son had a strong obligation to provide his deceased father with a proper burial (see Tobit 4:3; 6:15); the early rabbis even exempted a man from reciting the Shema, from the Tefillah (Eighteen Benedictions) and from Tefillin (wearing phylacteries) in order to fulfill his duty to bury his dead (m. Ber. 3.1) (see Hengel, The Charismatic Leader and His Followers, 3-15). Of course, Jesus' directive for the literal dead to bury the literal dead is absurd, which has led many commentators to interpret the first reference to the dead metaphorically as the "spiritually" dead (Fitzmyer, Luke, 833-37; Bultmann, TDNT, 4. 893; Hengel, The Charismatic Leader and His Followers, 8. This is possible, but probably not as likely as interpreting Jesus as using extreme hyperbole, to the point of absurdity, to make the point that no obligation can take priority over following him (and preaching the Kingdom of God) (Perrin, Rediscovering the Teaching of Jesus, 144; Manson, The Sayings of Jesus, 72-73). To say "Let the dead bury the dead" is to say "Let the dead remain unburied," if this is an obstacle to following Jesus. In other words, no duty, however important, can take priority over following Jesus. 2.3. Luke 14:26-27 = Matt 10:37-39 Matthew and Luke each has a version of a saying in which Jesus teaches that becoming his disciple entails an unconditional commitment to him, which he expresses as loving him more than members of one's family (see Gospel of Thomas, 55 for another version). In the Lukan version, Jesus says that a would-be disciple must "hate" (misei) "father and mother, wife and children, sisters and brothers, and even his own self (tên psuchên heautou)"; "to hate" is a Semitism, meaning "to love less" (Gen 29:31-33; Deut 21:15-17; 2 Sam 19:7; Prov 13:24; Isa 60:15; Mal 1:2-3 (Jeremias, New Testament Theology, 224; Marshall, Luke, 592). Matthew's version correctly renders the meaning of this idiom: "Anyone who loves his father or mother more than me is not worthy of me; anyone who loves his son or daughter more than me is not worthy of me" (Matt 10:37). Matthew and Luke have another saying following Luke 14:26 = Matt 10:37 in which Jesus says, in order to be a follower Jesus, one must bear one's cross. He means that to be his follower a person must be willing to suffer persecution and martyrdom for his sake and the sake of the Kingdom of God. The Jews were familiar with the Roman practice of compelling a condemned man to carry his own cross. Jesus teaches that the one who loses his or her life for his sake will gain it. Jesus means that the one who is martyred for his sake will find eternal life at the time of the resurrection. This is part of the eschatological reversal, which extends to those who have died unjustly. 2.5. Luke 9:61-62 Jesus teaches that the cost of becoming a disciple is high, so that a person cannot even return to say farewell to his family; such a person is not worthy of the Kingdom of God. Thus, to enter the Kingdom of God and to be a disciple of Jesus are inseparable. Jesus is probably using hyperbole to make the point that becoming a disciple takes priority over all natural relationships. It would seem that Jesus uses a common proverb to make his point: "No one who puts his hand to the plow and looks back is fit for service in the kingdom of God." To look back when plowing results in crooked furrows (see Marshall, Luke, 412). Jesus' point is that no one who "looks back" to his old life after having become a disciple and begun working for the Kingdom of God will succeed at that work. He will be double-minded and too distracted. What is required is absolute commitment.
2.6. Luke 14:28-33 Because he demands that a person give up everything to become his disciple, Jesus urges would-be disciples to consider carefully what is required of them. He uses two examples to make the point that what is required of would-be disciples is a total commitment: the man who frivolously begins a construction project or the king who casually decides to make war will fail in their endeavors, because total commitment of resources is required for success. Jesus concludes, "In the same way, any of you who does not give up everything he has cannot be my disciple." 2.7. Matt 11:28-30 Jesus invites people to come to him and he will give them rest; they are to take his yoke upon themselves and learn from him, for his yoke is easy and his burden is light; the result will be that those who do so will find rest. The metaphor of taking on a yoke is found in Wisdom of Jesus ben Sira 51:26: the author instructs his readers to put their necks under the yoke of (a personified) wisdom and receive instruction. Elsewhere in Sirach, wisdom is equated with the Law (Sir 1:8-27; 3:17-24; 15:1; 21:11; 34:8; 39:6-11; see also Bar 3:9-4:4; 1 Enoch 69:9-12). Similarly, in Ps. Sol. 7:8, the author describes Israel as under God's yoke, meaning under obligation to obey the Law. In several early rabbinic texts, likewise, one finds the metaphor of the yoke of the Law, the yoke of the commandments or the yoke of Heaven, which means the yoke of God (m. Abot 3.5; Sipra Leviticus 11:45 121 [Parashat Shemini Pereq 12]; Sipre Deut 117; Sipra Leviticus 255 [Parashat Behar Parashah 5]) (see also Sipre Deut 93 for a description of the wicked as being "without the yoke"). In Sipre Deut 323, one even finds a reference to accepting upon oneself "the yoke of the kingdom of heaven." (In m. Ber. 2.2, R. Judah b. Korcha says that one takes on the yoke of kingdom of heaven and then the yoke of commandments, meaning that one submits to God' s rule first and then as a manifestation of this submission one takes upon oneself the obligation to keep the commandments.) It is not difficult to imagine the Pharisees and other Jewish religious groups in Jesus' day as describing a life of obedience to the Law as taking on the yoke of the Law or the commandments or of Heaven (God); in fact all the evidence points in that direction. What Jesus means is that, as the representative and mediator of the Kingdom of God, people can find the rest that comes from submitting themselves to his authority and learning from him; although he does not say why this is true, according to Jesus, to do so is much easier as compared to the other religious options available. Jesus may have in mind the burden that learning all the Pharisaic oral tradition imposes upon those without adequate resources or opportunity to do so (see Matt 23:4). Jesus adds that he is gentle and humble of heart, which could explain why becoming a disciple is such a positive experience: A disciple is not exploited and oppressed by one's teacher. It should also be pointed out that, in calling others to come to him, to take his yoke and to learn from him, Jesus is casting himself in the role of personified wisdom (see Prov 1:20-33; 8:1-36; Sir 24:19-22; 51:23-27; Wis 6-11). To enter the Kingdom of God
is to synonymous with becoming a follower of Jesus; the one who repents
and believes Jesus' message is required to submit unconditionally to Jesus'
demand to become a disciple (Luke 9:59-60 = Matt 8:21-22; Luke 14:26-27
= Matt 10:37-39; Luke 9:61-62; Luke 14:28-33). Jesus' describes becoming
his followers as taking his yoke upon themselves and learning of him,
which, surprisingly, is not at all difficult and burdensome (Matt 11:28-30).
Jesus promises that in "the age to come," disciples will be rewarded:
"The last will be first and the first will be last"
(Mark 10:28-31 = Matt 19:27-30 = Luke 18:29-30);
those who have been martyred for Jesus' sake will find eternal life (Luke
17:33 = Matt 10:39).
3. Jesus' Teaching on Prayer and Faith 3.1. Luke 11:2-4 = Matt 6:9-13 In Luke, Jesus gives a prayer to his disciples in response their request for a prayer like the one John (the Baptist) gave to his disciples; in Matthew there is no such introduction.
After the direct address "Father" (patêr), a translation of the Aramaic 'abba, occurs two eschatological petitions: "May your name be made holy" and "May your kingdom come." God's name is synonymous with God or at least with God as known to human beings. To make God's name holy is an idiom, meaning to give the reverence and obedience that is due to God (see Isa 29:23; Ezek. 36:22-23; Sipre Deut 306; Sipra Leviticus 195 [Parashat Qedoshim Parashah 1]). The opposite of making God's name holy is to profane the name of God (See Moore, Judaism, 2.100-111). The disciples are also to pray for the coming of the Kingdom of God, the time when God's name will be made holy. This will be the time when God's will will done by human beings as it is done by God's angels, as Matthew explains. As Jeremias points out, the first two petitions in the Lord's Prayer are similar to the Kaddish, an ancient Jewish prayer, composed in Aramaic, and recited in the time of Jesus (New Testament Theology, 197-99): Exalted and hallowed (holy) be His great NameThe prayer that Jesus gave to his disciples, therefore, was similar in content to a Jewish prayer used in his day. The next three petitions concern the needs of the petitioners. They ask God for forgiveness on the condition that the petitioner forgives others (see Sir 28:2), for their daily required provision of food and for not to be led into trial or difficult circumstances (The implication is that human beings will naturally face difficulties unless they ask God to be exempt from them). (There has been much debate on the meaning of the adjective epiousion modifying arton ["bread"].) Fitzmyer is probably correct translating it as "essential" or "necessary" [Luke, 904-906]. The word opheilêma reflects the Aramaic use of "debt" [chwb'] for "sin" [see Black, An Aramaic Approach to the Gospels and Acts, 102; Fitzmyer, Luke, 2.906]. None of these petitions would have seemed unusual to Jesus' contemporaries; no doubt pious Jews made similar peititions of God all the time. Matthew's version adds as a supplement to this final petition: "But deliver us from the evil one." To be delivered from trial is to be delivered from the influence of Satan or spirits under his authority no doubt on the assumption that these beings are responsible for human suffering. 3.2. Mark 11:23-25 = Matt 21:21-22 After they notice that the fig tree that Jesus cursed earlier has now dried up, the disciples marvel. Jesus exhorts them to have faith in God, and then teaches them about the power of believing prayer (Mark 11:22-23 = Matt 21:21).The implication is that Jesus used faith to cause the fig tree to become withered and that the same power is available to the disciples. He teaches that with faith everything is possible, even the causing of the removal of "this" mountain into the sea, a proverbially impossible task. Jesus could be referring to the Mount of Olives, which is to be thrown into the Dead Sea, visible from the former; the Mount of Olives lies between the Temple and Bethany, where Jesus resided (Mark 11:12) (Lane, Mark, 410). Following this is another saying in which Jesus teaches that when one asks for something from God in prayer a condition of receiving the request is faith (Mark 11:24 = Matt 21:22). The final Markan saying cautions against asking while harboring unforgiveness against another when praying; a condition of being forgiven by God is forgiveness of others (Mark 11:25). The implication is that one's prayers will not be heard if the one praying has unforgiven sin. (Matthew omits this saying, perhaps because he includes similar non-Markan sayings elsewhere in his gospel [Matt 5:23; 6:9; 6:14-15].)
3.3. Luke 11:9-13 = Matt 7:7-11 In Luke 11:9-12 = Matt 7:7-11 are found two sayings on prayer and faith. In the first saying (Luke 11:9-10 = Matt 7:7-8), verbally identical in each gospel, Jesus teaches in poetic form that the one who in faith asks God for something will receive it (see Burney, The Poetry of Our Lord, 67, 83, 114). He makes three parallel statements Luke 11:9 = Matt 7:7): "Ask and it will be given to you; seek and you will find; knock and the door will be opened to you," which are are reinforced in the three shorter lines that follow in Luke 11:10 = Matt 7:8: "He who seeks finds; and to him who knocks, the door will be opened." In the second saying (Luke 11:11-12 = Matt 7:9-11), using the analogy of a human father and his benevolent attitude towards his own children, Jesus instructs his disciples to expect God to answer their prayers. In other words, he argues from minor to major that, if human fathers are good to their children, then surely God will be good to His spiritual children. There are differences between the two versions of this saying. In Matthew, Jesus asks, "Which man from among you, whose son asks for bread will give him a stone, or whose son asks for a fish will give him a snake?" Syntactically, Jesus' question is really a conditional sentence, the questions functioning as the apodosis and the protasis being supplied by the relative clauses relating to the son's requests: if a man's son asks for either bread or a fish, a man will surely not give him a stone or a snake. In the Lukan version, Jesus likewise makes a conditional proposition in the form of a question; different from Matthew, however, the son asks his father for a fish and an egg: "Which father from among you, when his son asks him for a fish will give him a snake or when he asks him for an egg will give him a scorpion?" (In some manuscripts of Luke, after "son" (huios), is found the phrase "bread, not a son will he give to him, or [also]," but this is clearly an assimilation to the Matthean text). Those who assume that Matthew and Luke each derives the saying from the so-called Q source attempt to determine which of the two versions best represents the hypothetical original (For a list of suggestions, see Marshall, Luke, 469). It is probable, however, that there were two different versions of this saying in circulation, and this because Jesus used this saying more than once and varied its wording. Nevertheless, in spite of the differences, Jesus' point is clear: human beings should expect good things from God, and not bad, since God is at least as good as human fathers. Jesus continues his argument from minor to major in Luke 11:13 = Matt 7:11. He reasons that, if evil human fathers give "good gifts" (domata agatha) to their children, then surely the heavenly Father will be at least equally as generous. In Matthew's version, Jesus asks, "How much more will your Father who is in heaven give good things to those who ask Him," whereas in Luke's version, rather than good things, Jesus says that God will give a or the "Holy Spirit" to those who ask Him. Scholars who accept the existence of the hypothetical document Q usually judge that Luke has change the original reading, represented by Matthew, on account of his particular interest in the Spirit (see Luke 1:15, 35, 41, 67, 80; 2:25, 26, 27; 3:16, 22; 4:1 [bis], 14, 18; 10:21; 11:13; 12:10, 12; 24:49) (Fitzmyer, Luke, 913-17; Ellis; Luke, 166). But, it is possible that there were two different versions of this saying in circulation, both originating with Jesus; the gift of a holy spirit or spirit of holiness was a part of Jewish eschatological expectation (see John the Baptist).
3.4. Luke 17:5-6; Matt 17:20 Matthew and Luke have two different sayings that make the same point about the power of faith. What they share in common is the use of the metaphor of the mustard seed: faith can be as small as the proverbial mustard seed in order to achieve great results (Perrin, Rediscovering the Teaching of Jesus, 138). (Matthew appends the saying to the Markan narrative about the inability of the disciples to exorcize "a dumb spirit" from a boy, whereas Luke includes it among a collection of sayings in 17:1-10.) The results that are achievable by faith are described with two different metaphors of contrast. Faith as small as a mustard can move a mountain in Matt 17:20 (see Matt 21:21 = Mark 11:23), whereas in Luke 17:6 it can uproot a sycamore tree, known for its deep roots (see m. B. Bat. 2.11). 3.5. Luke 11:5-8 In Luke 11:5-8, situated by Luke after the Lord's Prayer, is found a saying about the need for persistence in prayer (see Bonsirven, Le règne de Dieu, 169-73). Jesus makes the point by telling the parable of the man who importunes his neighbor at night until the neighbor finally gets out of bed and gives the man what he wants. Jesus argues from minor to major: if an unwilling man will finally give a another man what he wants because of his persistence, how much more will a willing God give to those who persist in asking for something. The parable begins with the formula, "Who among you...?" (tis ex humôn), which is characteristic of other Lukan parables (see 11:11; 12:25; 14:28; 15:4; 17:7; 14:31; 15:8). Jesus begins this way in order to engage his hearers and cause them to judge for themselves and thereby judge themselves. The expected answer is either "No one" or "Everyone," depending on the situation described. (Jeremias claims that by appending Luke 11:9-13 to the parable, Luke has provided it with an interpretation that distorts Jesus' original meaning. Jeremias holds that the point of the parable was to depict God as the helping friend, whereas Luke's interpretation focuses on the need for persistent prayer [The Parables of Jesus, 105; 157-59]. But Jeremias' position seems improbable, especially given the Parable of the Persistent Widow, which is parallel in meaning [Luke 18:1-8].) 3.6. Luke 18:1-8 Jesus teaches that God is well-disposed towards those who petition him in prayer, although such petitioning must be done with perseverance. Luke explains that "Jesus told his disciples a parable to show them that they should always pray and not give up" (Luke 18:1), thereby guiding the reader in its interpretation. Jesus compares the one who asks of God to a widow who harasses a judge for so long that he finally gives her what she wants, justice. God is like the judge, not in being unwilling to give justice, but because, for whatever reason, sometimes God must be "harassed" until He gives what is requested by the petitioner. 3.7. Matt 6:5-8 Jesus teaches how not to pray: One should not pray to make a favorable impression on onlookers like "the hypocrites," and one should not pray as the pagans, with repetitious babbling.
4. Miscellaneous Teachings of Jesus 4.1. Matt 5:14, 16; Mark 4:21 = Luke 8:16-17; Luke 11:33 = Matt 5:15 Jesus calls the disciples "the light of the world," by which he means that they communicate God's truth and salvation to all who have contact with them; they cannot hide their "light-nature" any more than a city on a hill can be concealed from view. Jesus encourages those who follow him to let their lights shine so that people will see their good works and glorify God (Matt 5:14, 16). Jesus also compares the one who enters the Kingdom of God to a light that is not to be placed under a basket but set upon a lamp stand. The point is that such a one should make it known that he or she has entered the Kingdom of God (Mark 4:21 = Luke 8:16-17; Luke 11:33 = Matt 5:15). 4.2. Mark 3:33-35 = Matt 12:48-50 = Luke 8:21 Jesus says to the crowd that his true mothers and brothers are those who do the will of God. In Jesus' view, whether one does the will of God has priority over everything else. It is God's will that Jesus' hearers believe the message of the Kingdom of God and repent. 4.3. Luke 6:41-42 = Matt 7:3-5 Using the metaphor of the beam and speck of wood in eyes, Jesus speaks against hypocritical judging: only he who is without fault can justifiably judge others. The picture is intentionally bizarre to stress how inappropriate it is to judge when one is as guilty as the one whom one judges. 4.4. Mark 4:25 = Matt 13:12 = Luke 8:18 (see doublet in Luke 19:26 = Matt 25:29) Included as one of a collection of three sayings in Mark 4:21-25 is a saying in which Jesus sets forth a principle according to which God relates to human beings. Jesus teaches that the one who has it shall be given to him, but the one who does not have, whatever he does have, will be taken away. (As already indicated, Matthew interpolates into his Markan source either this Markan saying [Mark 4:25 = Luke 8:18b] or a non-Markan version of the same saying, placing this in relation to Jesus' explanation of why he teaches in parables. The version of the saying in the doublet in Luke 19:26 = Matt 25:29 does not differ substantially from Mark 4:25.) The point seems to be that God gives both abundantly and selectively; what is implied in Jesus' saying is that God gives on the condition of faith, so that faith receives abundantly from God, where the lack of faith loses what little it has. Jesus says if the blind lead the blind they will both fall into the ditch, by which he means that one must be careful in one's choice of teachers. 4.6. Mark 4:24; Matt 7:2; Luke 6:38 In what appears to be three independent traditions, Jesus teaches that God will deal with a person in the same way that the person has dealt with others: "With the measure you use, it will be measured to you." This idea is also found in early rabbinic literature, some of which dates from before Jesus; thus, Jesus' teaching is likely not unique to him. In early rabbinic material, it is affirmed that punishment for transgression is not arbitrarily meted out. Rather, there is an appropriateness to each act of retributive justice. As the early rabbis put it, "By the measure that one metes out to others one is also measured." The appropriateness consists in the fact that a person is dealt with in the way that he or she has dealt with others. For example, Moses' exclusion of Miriam from the camp for seven days on account of her leprous condition is seen as appropriate punishment for someone who abandoned her baby brother Moses ("stood at a distance") after placing him in the water (Exod 2:4) (Sipre Num CVI:II 2.A; see also Mek. Beshallah 1.108-10, 194-95; 6.137-40; Mek. Shirata 4.80-101; 5.25-26; 6.104-105; Mek. Amalek 2.1-11; Sipre Deut 296, 308). In Luke 6:38, it is added that God will give to a person in proportion to his giving to others: "Give, and it will be given to you. A good measure, pressed down, shaken together and running over, will be poured into your lap." This is a restatement of this principle of the measure. 4.7. Luke 10:25-37 In response to the question, "Who is my neighbor?" Jesus tells the parable of the good Samaritan to make the point that one's neighbor is anyone in need. In the parable, it is the Samaritan who is a "neighbor" to the injured man, not the priest or Levite, both Jews involved in Temple service. The parable would have a jarring effect on the sensibilities of his hearers, because of the general antipathy of Jews towards Samaritans. The narrative concludes: "Which of these three do you think was a neighbor to the man who fell into the hands of robbers?" The expert in the law replied, "The one who had mercy on him." Jesus told him, "Go and do likewise."
4.8. Luke 12:16-21 Jesus warns that, unlike the rich fool who accumulates only material wealth, a person must choose to become rich before God. To become rich towards God is to do accumulate deeds that really matter to God (see Matt 6:19-20). Jesus says that a person cannot serve mammon and God at the same time. (Mammon is an Aramaic word for wealth.) Jesus is saying that it is impossible to have as one's life goal the accumulation of wealth and the goal of obeying and thereby pleasing God. The two are incompatible because the realization of the aim to accumulate wealth will at times prevent a person from obeying God, because to do the latter is not always financially profitable. In addition to pursue wealth as a life goal will require a general moral laxity, since moral scruples may interfere with profit. 4.10. Luke 17:7-10 Using a parable, Jesus explains that servants who merely do their duty are not to be praised. The same is true of those who do their duty towards God. When he obeys God, a man has only done he should have done, and therefore is not worthy of praise. 4.11. Mark 3:28-30 = Matt 12:31a, 32b; Matt 12:31b-32a = Luke 12:10 Jesus says that the one who speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven. To speak against the Holy Spirit is to reject the message of the Kingdom of God and its messenger. 4.12. Mark 9:33-37 = Matt 18:1-5 = Luke 9:46-48; Mark 10:42-44 = Matt 20:25-27; Luke 22:25-27 Jesus says that the one who wants to be first must become the servant of all. There is to be a reversal of values in the Kingdom of Heaven, so that the one who serves others will be considered great. 4.13. Mark 11:25; Matt 6:14-15 In two independent sayings, Jesus teaches that divine forgiveness is conditional on forgiving others. 4.14. Mark 12:41-44 = Luke 21:1-4 Jesus commends a widow for giving all she had to the temple; he was commending her not merely for her generosity, but also for her faith: in giving all that she had, she was thereby trusting God to provide for her needs. 4.15. Luke 6:37 = Matt 7:1 Jesus teaches that a person ought not to judge, because judging others will bring God's judgment on the one who judges. 4.16. Luke 6:40 = Matt 10:24-25a In two versions of the same tradition, Jesus teaches that a student or disciple is not above his teacher or master; all that a student or disciple can hope for is to be equal with his teacher or master. so that the disciple will share the fate of his master. The intended application of this saying, however, is not clear. 4.17. Luke 12:33-34 = Matt 6:19-21 The two versions of this tradition are different at points, but may originate from a common source. In Luke's version, Jesus teaches his disciples that, by giving to the poor, they store up treasure in heaven; in Matthew's version, Jesus likewise speaks about storing up treasure in heaven and not on earth, but says nothing about the means by which this is done: giving to the poor. To store up treasure in heaven is to gain God's approval and reward through obedience, which, in this case, as Luke indicates, is through giving to the poor. The Torah requires protection of and generosity to the poor (see Exod 23:6; Lev. 25:35-37; Deut 15:7-11; 24:14-15); in Deut 15:10b, it is promised: "Give generously to him and do so without a grudging heart; then because of this the LORD your God will bless you in all your work and in everything you put your hand to." In other words, reward is promised to the one who is generous to the poor. In the second-Temple period, the giving of alms was required of the righteous, and, in accordance with the Torah, the righteous were promised reward for their obedience to the Torah in being generous to the poor. In Tobit, the angel Raphael recommends to Tobit almsgiving with righteousness, "For almsgiving saves from death and cleanses from every sin" (12:9). In another passage almsgiving is compared in its efficacy to "a good offering...before the Most High" (4:9-11) (see also 14:10). The righteous person who is generous to the poor assures for himself or herself protection from premature death and the possibility of being cleansed from any and every sin. In other words, because of his or her past record, God in his mercy will exempt such a one from the consequences of his or her uncharacteristic sins. (This may explain why after Tobit was scourged, God had mercy on him [11:15]). Similarly, Ben Sirach says that giving alms to the poor not only protects a person from misfortune (29:9-13; 40:17, 24), but actually atones for sins (3:30). In Sipre Deut 117, which is a midrash on Deut 15:9-10, how God rewards the one who is generous to the poor is described in detail: If a person had said that he would give and then gave, he would receive one reward for the saying and another reward for the act of giving. If he had said that he would give but was then unable to do so, he would receive a reward a reward for the saying equivalent to the act of giving. If he did not say that he would give but told others to give, he would receive a reward for that, as it is said, "Because that for this thing." If he neither said that he would give nor told others to give, but comforted the donee with kind words, whence do we learn that he would receive a reward even for that? From the statement, "Because that for this thing the Lord your God will bless you in all your work.(M. Abot 1.2 calls the acts of charity (gemiloth chasadim) one of the three things whereby the world is upheld, the other two being the Law and Temple service.) It is clear that the person who was generous to the poor could expect reward in this life from God, whatever this might be. The reward that Jesus promises to his disciples for their generosity to the poor is to be stored up in heaven, by which he means with God; it seems that Jesus is speaking of eschatological reward, to be given after the eschatological reversal at the time of final judgment. Jesus adds, "For where your treasure is, there your heart will be also." This probably means that, when they store up eschatological reward for themselves by their generosity to the poor, the disciples will be characterized as those who eschew this age and its meager benefits and wait for the age to come, the Kingdom of God. 4.18. Luke 17:3b = Matt 18:15 In what appears to be two versions of the same saying, Jesus teaches that one must rebuke a brother if he sins. In Luke's version, one must forgive a brother who repents, whereas in Matthew, Jesus says that the one who rebukes a brother has won him over if he heeds the rebuke (The assumption is that he repents.) 4.19. Luke 17:4 = Matt 18:21-22 In two independent sayings, Jesus teaches that there is no limit on the number of times one must forgive. 4.20. Luke 6:36 (see Matt 5:48) Jesus requires that his followers be merciful as God is merciful. 4.21. Luke 11:27-28 Jesus teaches that true blessedness comes from hearing the word of God and doing it. 4.22. Matt 5:48 (see Luke 6:36) Jesus requires that his followers be perfect as God is perfect. 4.23. Luke 14:12-14 Jesus advises those giving dinners or feasts to invite those who cannot repay them, for God will repay them at the resurrection of the righteous. God's rewards for obedience at the resurrection of the righteous is an aspect of the Kingdom of God in its future realization. 4.24. Matt 19:11-12 Jesus allows for the possibility that there would be voluntary eunuchs for the Kingdom of Heaven, by which he means those who refrain from marriage for the sake of the Kingdom of Heaven. 4.25. Acts 20:35 This saying of Jesus is not found in the gospels, but is cited by Paul. Paul quotes Jesus as saying that it is more blessed to give than to receive. The meaning is that a person who gives to others in the end will receive more in return (blessedness) than if he had received; the principle at work in creation is that, ironically, giving leads to receiving even more than one gave. It is the same idea expressed in Mark 4:24; Matt 7:2; Luke 6:38. 4.26. Forgiveness (Matt 18:23-35)
Jesus tells another parable in order to indicate that the Kingdom of Heaven (God) as the time of undeserved forgiveness. Even though Matthew attaches it to the pericope on forgiving one's brother seventy times seven times, this parable stands alone and should be taken as a self-contained point about the Kingdon of Heaven (God). The story is told is about an earthly king who seeks to settle accounts with his "servants" (douloi), who are probably to be taken more as government officials or ministers than mere domestic slaves (The phrase sunairô logon in active or middle voice is a commercial idiom; see P.Fay 109.6; BGU 775.19; Pap.Ox. 1. 113.27.) The situation envisioned is that of an earthly king (anthrôpos basileus) who has given his ministers certain governmental responsibilities with corresponding budgets and now intends to audit them. One minister is discovered to have a huge deficit for reasons that are unstated, but may be due to inept embezzlement. His deficit is ten thousand talents, which is six thousand denarii; a denarius is the standard daily wage for a worker. To have such a huge debt intentionally stretches the bounds of narrative realism: such hyperbole serves to make the point that the minister is so much in debt that he will never be able to repay the king. The penalty for incurring such a deficit is to be sold into slavery along with his entire family (see 2 Kgs 4; Neh 5:5; Isa 50). But when the minister appeals for mercy the king forgives his huge, unpayable debt. The Kingdom of Heaven is like this story that Jesus told because God mercifully forgives Jews their sins. The fact that in Aramaic the word debt (chwb') is used metaphorically to denote a sin would make the point of the parable even clearer to the original Aramaic hearers. According to the metaphor, Jews owe God obedience and when they do not give God what they owe by obeying the commandments then they are in debt to God (see M. Black, An Aramaic Approach to the Gospels and Acts, 102) (see Matt 6:12 = Luke 11:4). (In 4Q584 [4QNoah ar], the terms "sin and debt" [cht'h wchwbth'] occur in tandem as apparent synonyms [frag. 2 17].) Jesus point in the first half of he parable is that the Kingdom of Heaven (God) is the time of unconditional forgiveness for Jewish sinners. In the second half of the parable the minister subsequently does not forgive a subordinate a much smaller debt, but throws his debtor into prison. When he finds out what has happened, the king becomes angry and cancels the forgiveness of the first servant's debt. The point is that only on the condition of forgiveness does a person retain God's forgiveness. Jesus concludes, "My heavenly Father will also do the same to you, if each of you does not forgive his brother from your heart."
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